No, "one person one vote" is not a requirement for all political power in a republic. That's not how the Roman Republic's elections operated at all (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=trrqslUpfdw). The idea that a republic could be several sub-polities (like U.S. states) having equal voting rights in ways that are out proportion with varying populations is an absolutely 100% legitimate interpretation of what it can mean to be a 100% authentic republic. You literally are just making up this criterion yourself; I doubt you can find any serious scholarship that would share your custom definition that "one person one vote" is a core requirement for a republic. I challenge you to find someone. You can't.