You seem to be asserting that the Arabs did not even know that the Jews had bought land from the Ottomans. Seems theoretically possible, but highly, highly, highly unlikely. Really, the question of "buying" isn't even relevant here: Everyone understands what imperial authority is. When the empire says "do" you "do". Clearly the Arabs would have understood that the Ottoman Empire was enforcing what was going on. If the Arabs had wanted a system with more tenant rights or small holding landownership under yeoman farmers, then they should have built such a system when they were the Empire for a few centuries earlier, but they didn't; the Arabs deployed a feudal landholding system before the Ottomans came along, and the Ottomans just continued it. To suppose that the Arabs didn't know what was going on seems rather absurd. Which gets to another point: You trying to compare Ottoman-Arab to French-Native American is ridiculous. My European feudal analogy is way more appropriate. The French and Native Americans didn't speak each others' languages, or share a religion; the dominant French were also more "civilized". The feudal lords of medieval Europe, from England through France, into Germany and Italy, were descendants of barbarian Germanic tribes like the Franks (and the Normans, who were French speaking Vikings), were less civilized than their feudal subjects just like how the Ottomans were barbarian tribes less civilized than the Arabs they conquered. Feudal European lords and their subjects shared religion, just like Ottomans and Arabs, and unlike French/Native Americans. Ottomans learned Arabic as their religious language, just like the Franks dropped the Germanic Frankish language and learned the local vulgar Latin of the Church instead.